From: "Peña, Botp" <botp@...>
Date: 2002-11-21T15:04:59+09:00
Subject: Re: difference between "and" and "&&"

Hi sir David [mailto:dblack@candle.superlink.net]:

You wrote:
 
> Yes.  The first one is equivalent to:
> 
>   (haveBoth = a) and b
> 
> The second is:
> 
>   haveBoth = (a && b)
> 

I am surprise and I'm new to Ruby :-)

I do find both structurally same, but why the difference in precedence?

Pls enlighten..

> 
> David
> 

Many thanks,
-botp