From: dblack@...
Date: 2002-11-20T05:29:51+09:00
Subject: Re: difference between "and" and "&&"

Hi --

On Wed, 20 Nov 2002, Volkmann, Mark wrote:

> I thought the only difference between these was precedence, but I'm seeing
> another difference.
>
> a = 'test'
> b = nil
> haveBoth = a and b
> # haveBoth is now equal to 'test'
>
> haveBoth = a && b
> # haveBoth is now equal to nil
>
> Is this the expected behavior?

Yes.  The first one is equivalent to:

  (haveBoth = a) and b

The second is:

  haveBoth = (a && b)


David

-- 
David Alan Black
home: dblack@candle.superlink.net
work: blackdav@shu.edu
Web:  http://pirate.shu.edu/~blackdav