From: Joost Diepenmaat Date: 2008-09-08T17:53:49+09:00 Subject: Re: idiomatic? cnb writes: > which is more idiomatic? amazing how similar ruby and python are. > > and what does the guy mean with "pure" here: > http://www.linuxjournal.com/article/4834 > that it is purely OO and consequent? I'm not him, but luckily I don't have to guess. It's in the article: "Everything, including primitive data types like strings and integers, is represented as an object. Even constants and classes are represented as objects. This makes Ruby a pure object-oriented language." > Would Python be impure in his > meaning of pure? I have only minimal knowledge of Python, but IIRC, python is not as object-oriented as Ruby is. > def fib(n, a=0, b=1) > if n > 0 > then fib(n-1, a+b, a) > else a > end > end [snip] What do these have to do with anything? -- Joost Diepenmaat | blog: http://joost.zeekat.nl/ | work: http://zeekat.nl/