From: Chad Perrin <perrin@...>
Date: 2007-09-15T20:35:37+09:00
Subject: Re: rand()  v. rand(0.1) ?

On Sat, Sep 15, 2007 at 08:11:25PM +0900, Florian Frank wrote:
> 7stud -- wrote:
> >Is there any difference between calling rand() and rand(0.1)?
> >  
> ------------------------------------------------------------ Kernel#rand
>     rand(max=0)    => number
> ------------------------------------------------------------------------
>     Converts _max_ to an integer using max1 = max+.to_i.abs+. [...]
> 
> No.

Speaking of which . . . obviously rand() doesn't produce a truly random
number, but it's reasonably close for some purposes.  I'm curious about
just how far off it is, though -- because I'm curious about how
appropriate it is to use to simulate dice-rolling for gaming software (in
the "roleplaying game" sense of the term "gaming") in Ruby's
implementation.  I'd prefer some kind of a general feel for it before I
write software to statistically analyze the output of millions of
iterations of rand() evaluations.

-- 
CCD CopyWrite Chad Perrin [ http://ccd.apotheon.org ]
Dr. Ron Paul: "Liberty has meaning only if we still believe in it when
terrible things happen and a false government security blanket beckons."