From: Chad Perrin <perrin@...>
Date: 2007-04-05T05:12:22+09:00
Subject: Re: nil? and non-existent objects

On Thu, Apr 05, 2007 at 04:46:12AM +0900, Emmanuel Oga wrote:
> I think is because of the ruby's analisis on the scope. That is, in:
> 
> puts x = 1 if x.nil?
> 
> ruby sees x in the scope even if it is never accesed nor asigned, but in
> 
> puts ???z is not defined??? if z.nil?
> 
> z is never in scope, because it is present only inside a string, it does 
> not appear anywhere before the call of the method "nil?"

Is that a spec detail or an implementation detail?  It might be nice to
know whether, assuming a stable language specification, that operational
characteristic might go away at some point.

-- 
CCD CopyWrite Chad Perrin [ http://ccd.apotheon.org ]